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Boasting more than , types and sizes of products in its line and a reputation for dependable customer service and high quality, AMP has long enjoyed steady growth through heavy research and development spending and aggressive global expansion. Whitaker, a former employee of Westinghouse Electric and the Hoover Company who held degrees in mechanical and electrical engineering and law.

Aircraft Marine Products, as the company was called, specialized in solderless, uninsulated electrical connections for aircraft and boat manufacturers: a short metal tube with a ring on the end and a crimping tool. The device allowed electricians to make quick, removable wire connections without a heating element or flux.

It was simple, unique, and very popular. From a small office in New Jersey, Aircraft Marine established supply contracts with some of the largest industrial manufacturers in the world. Companies such as Boeing, Consolidated Vultee, Ford, and Electric Boat redirected their production toward the war effort, developing new products and accelerating output.

More than ever before, warplanes, battleships, and field equipment incorporated electrical devices, and increasingly these were assembled with solderless connections. With its business thriving from war production, Aircraft Marine soon moved to a larger facility in Glen Rock, Pennsylvania. It then moved its headquarters to Harrisburg in , after winning over the city's chamber of commerce, which did not want new business in the city, complaining about inadequate housing.

A fire at the Glen Rock plant and the trauma of relocation overshadowed the introduction of the preinsulated terminal, an improved version of AMP's existing product that left all but the terminal ring exposed--an improvement that reduced the incidence of shorted circuits. Much of U. Many of Aircraft Marine's customers went bankrupt, were acquired, or were forced into mergers; in general they were compelled to reduce the scale of their operations drastically. Aircraft Marine, however, needed little product conversion in order to adapt to the postwar economy, because its connections were versatile components rather than more specialized finished products.

Still, the transition was stressful for Aircraft Marine. It was able to survive the sudden drop in orders through drastic austerity measures and additional underwriting from Midland Investment Company, its primary benefactor.

Whitaker was bitter after the company's experience with military contracts and procurement controls. Aircraft Marine reentered the commercial market with another new product, the strip-formed terminal. During the company created a marketing unit called AMP Special Industries and established sales of existing products, and the introduction of connectors for pin and sockets, coaxial cables, and printed circuits resulted in unprecedented growth.

Expanding through sales-led growth rather than by acquisition, Aircraft Marine added subsidiaries in Australia, Britain, the Netherlands, Italy, Japan, Mexico, and West Germany during the s. The company thereafter raised additional capital through share offerings. AMP improved and expanded its plant space and began a more ambitious research and development effort.

Whitaker relinquished the company presidency to George A. Ingalls in Although he remained chairman, Whitaker wished to emphasize a more democratic form of leadership. He assigned many of his own managerial responsibilities to other managers and slowly removed himself from the company's daily operations.

AMP made a conscious decision during the s against diversification into a wider range of products. Instead, management elected to concentrate on the "passive components" market it had come to dominate.

AMP had experienced 15 percent annual growth for a decade beginning in the mids and anticipated an increasingly difficult "active component" market in the ensuing decades.

Indeed, though Japanese electronics manufacturers were developing new capabilities in active components--particularly transistors--they neglected to take advantage of trade regulations that would have allowed them to establish an enduring position in passive components. As a result, AMP became the largest passive component manufacturer in Japan. AMP continued to make frequent management changes; presidents and chief executives served only for about five years before changing jobs.

Whitaker, however, served as chairman until his death in His death neither interrupted the company's business nor caused a management battle for power. Under the leadership of Joseph D. Brenner, AMP maintained its stable course but devoted increasing sums of money toward research into new "semipassive" systems. Products that materialized from this intensified effort included more advanced coaxial connections for the growing cable-TV market, fiber-optic terminals for improved telecommunications systems, and more durable membrane switches.

To some extent, however, AMP did not take full advantage of military sales. Much like Whitaker, Brenner refused to seek Pentagon sales because the government negotiated special prices on the basis of margin. This necessitated inspection of AMP's books--something Whitaker viewed as interference in the company's business.

Instead, AMP was, in effect, a secondary supplier; it sold to companies that did hold Pentagon contracts. Insulated from the vagaries of defense procurement, AMP was better able to maintain stable growth, which continued at an annual rate of about 16 percent. A cautious planner in the mold of his predecessors, Raab presided over AMP during a delicate period.

Major customers, such as IBM, Ford, and Digital, sought to cut supply costs by reducing stocks and numbers of suppliers. Already the largest suppliers to the industry, they were most likely to survive. In fact, they stood to gain market share as smaller suppliers were eliminated.

AMP invested heavily in the development of integrated subassemblies and new automated application methods. The system was originally conceived for use in automotive manufacturing. The installation of automotive wiring harnesses, or electrical systems, was complex and labor-intensive. Subassemblies, however, were simple and cut down on person-hours.

AMP had to wait more than ten years, however, before auto manufacturers were willing to incorporate the system into production. In components customers suddenly initiated a drastic reorganization--they switched to automated subassemblies in a very short period. AMP, the least affected, suffered an 18 percent drop in sales, but it recovered quickly as new products were brought on line. Recognizing the potential sales that came with U. Still, less than five percent of its sales came from the military.

Even with this move, however, military sales would lessen in importance in the coming years. By less than three percent of AMP's sales came from the military. In the late s and early s AMP continued to expand internationally.

All AMP foreign subsidiaries were staffed only with locals and had their own engineering and production facilities in order to quickly respond to the needs of the local customers. During this period, AMP also expanded overseas through acquisitions and partnerships. The firm acquired the Swiss-based Decolletage S.

By AMP could boast of facilities operating in 36 countries, with plans for further expansion in the mid- and late s including Indonesia and Vietnam. Thus solidifying its position in electrical and electronic connectors through international channels, AMP began to expand more aggressively into related industries. Two other strategies AMP adopted during this period were subsystems development and the use of independent distributors.

With the former, AMP reacted to demands of customers who increasingly wished to acquire complete subsystems rather than components that required assembly.

Increasing its use of independent distributors and cooperative affiliates, AMP found more marketing channels and potential for greater sales. By AMP already generated 14 percent of its sales through nondirect channels, double the seven percent figure of Guided by James E. Marley, chairman, and William J. Hudson, chief executive officer and president, AMP's aggressive international expansion and moves into related industries and subsystems development came at a time when its traditionally healthy sales growth had slowed.

From to the company averaged only 5. The results for were much improved, however, as AMP increased its sales Argentina C.

Switzerland ; Decolletage S. James Press, As consumers, we often take for granted all the hard work that goes into building a great company. We see them around but we don't know what goes on behind the scenes. Finally, we can read about how these great companies came about with Company Histories. Copyright c Company-Histories. All rights reserved. Privacy Policy. Box Harrisburg, Pennsylvania U. Telephone: Fax: Quick search. Company Histories As consumers, we often take for granted all the hard work that goes into building a great company.

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However, the aircraft type training may be conducted physically in a Part-M Subpart F, Part or Part-CAO organisation under the control and as a part of the approval of a Part organisation issuing the Certificate of Recognition. In addition, the theoretical and practical element of the aircraft type training can be conducted by two different approved Part organisations. The competent authority endorsing the type rating on the license should be convinced that the interfaces have been correctly addressed before proceeding thereof In the special case where the aircraft type course is directly approved by the competent authority in accordance with the procedure As a consequence, the certificate issued is not mutually recognized between Member States, which means it can only be used for aircraft type endorsement by the licensing authority who issued that direct approval.

Paragraph 3. In addition, the practical training should particularly address the tasks which cannot be explained by theoretical training only. While relatively simple tasks may be included, other more complex tasks shall also be incorporated and completed as appropriate to the aircraft type. Regarding the way to read the table in paragraph 3. Inside each line applicable to the aircraft type, half or more of the crosses can be selected. When selecting the tasks, the usage of filtering method based on the criteria similar to that described in AMC to paragraph 3.

The duration of the practical training should ensure that the content of training required by paragraph 3. According to point 3. However, the Part organisation should be capable of conducting the full course relative to the sub category sought, so that they can run the examination. The examiners invigilators are not required to be experts in the subjects examined when relative to the MCQs in accordance with Appendix II to Part However, the assessment of essay questions as part of the basic knowledge has to be conducted by knowledgeable personnel with the help of a standard reply.

Eventually, the invigilators must be trained to the examination process. Examiners should demonstrate a clear understanding of the examination standard required by Part and have a responsible attitude to the conduct of examinations such that the highest integrity is ensured. GM Regarding the type training examination and assessment standard as well as type examination standard as described in Part, Appendix III, paragraphs 4 and 5, the theoretical element examination can follow the same principle as above; however, for the practical element assessment, the examiner s must be appropriately qualified.

Point 1 deals with the facility requirement for knowledge training whereby the number of students shall not exceed Point 2 defines the facility requirements for the examination purposes, where the maximum number of students attending the knowledge examination is not limited. The number of students attending the knowledge examination is indirectly limited only by the size, layout and arrangement of the accommodation in order to fulfil the following requirements:. Consequently, as long as the facility and examination standard as well as the integrity of the examination can be ensured, the number of candidates attending the examination may not be limited.

In case of a larger number of candidates, two or more examiners may be used to ensure the integrity of the examination, such as separation of the candidates, no potential cheating, no speaking to each other, only examination paper on the table, no examination paper removed from the room, etc.

This does not prevent any organisation or person involved in aviation activities, including maintenance training activities, to report any safety occurrence or other safety information they consider relevant.

Such reports would be to the voluntary reporting system to be established by all competent authorities according to Article 5. Typically, a Part- approved training organisation having implemented a Safety Management System SMS on a voluntary basis would have such a voluntary occurrence reporting system.

An online service developed by the EC allows organisations and individuals to report aviation safety occurrences to aviation authorities. Courses outside the scope of Part cannot be part of the Approval Schedule of the approved Part organisation.

This does not prevent a training organisation to provide such courses. The scope, content and the delivery methods of these courses will not be reviewed by the Agency or the EASA Member States, as part of the audit scope of the Part organisation.

However, when Part-M, Part-ML, Part or Part-CAO requires the staff to be trained, the appropriateness of such training being delivered would be assessed during the audits of these particular organisations. Part, in particular, There are no additional requirements or guidance published in EASA rules regarding the experience and qualification of instructors, except that it is recommended that potential instructors be trained in instructional techniques.

EASA does not issue Instructor licences or equivalent, and permanent or contracted instructors can only exercise instruction privileges through the approval of a Training Organisation. Instructors are nominated by the approved organisation, which keep detailed records of their qualifications and are audited by the authority.

For any further questions, we advise you to contact the training organisation Quality Assurance Dept. This means that the quality system itself should be independently audited.

The competent authority cannot perform this function on behalf of the organisation. This implies that quality system monitoring itself must be subject to internal audits:.

In case the answer you were looking for in this FAQ section is not available: you might submit your enquiry here. Baby bassinets are currently included in a certification process of the particular aircraft in which they will be installed; baby bassinets are not certified as a separate device and they are not certified for taxi, take-off, landing and turbulent weather conditions.

Placards advising on their stowage during taxi, take-off, landing and turbulence are required either at the location where baby bassinets will be fixed to the aircraft structure e. Because of the standard fixation of the unit, they are not stable during turbulence, they may swing up and down, and therefore they must be stowed during turbulence. The applicable reference paragraph is CS There is no specific mention of baby bassinets, however, equipment installed in an aircraft must meet the applicable requirements of the certification basis, the equipment specifications if available or aircraft manufacturer specifications if available , or NAA requirements applicable to the operation of the aircraft.

For any questions on certification matters, do not hesitate to contact EASA Certification directorate. Detailed rules are then adopted by the European Commission based on technical advice from EASA to further detail how to achieve these objectives and obligations.

For example, the implementing rules for air operations i. The Essential Requirements can be amended by the European Commission where necessary for reasons of technical, operational or scientific developments or evidence. These terms refer to certain legal concepts used in aviation safety regulations, in particular Reg. For example, in Reg. Grandfathering measures are included in the Cover Regulation to assist Member States in the transition from national rules to unified EU rules.

In the case of aircrew licensing, provisions on grandfathering consider some national certificates issued in compliance with given regulations and by a certain date as being in compliance with the new Aircrew Regulation i.

A 'transition measure' is a provision helping the national competent authorities and regulated entities to gradually adapt to the new EU rules. Several examples can be found in the Aircrew Regulation, such as in Article 11c in relation to the obligation of Member States regarding the transfer of records and certification processes of those organisations for which the Agency is the competent authority and in Article 4 1 — the obligation of Member States to adapt grandfathered pilot licences to the new format by a certain date.

The 'opt-out' is a form of transition measure applicable to Member States. Opt-out provisions allowed Member States to decide not to implement an EU regulation or certain provisions thereof for a certain period of time, delaying the date of application of the new regulation or certain provisions thereof within that Member State.

For example, the opt-out provisions contained in the Aircrew and Air Ops regulations required the Member State to notify the European Commission and EASA of the 'opt-out', describing the reasons for such derogation and the programme for the phasing out of the opt-out and achieving full implementation of the common requirements. Article 10 Entry into force 1. This Regulation shall enter into force on the third day following that of its publication in the Official Journal of the European Union.

It shall apply from 28 October The entry into force of an EU regulation represents the date when the regulation has legal existence in the EU legal order and in the national legal order of each Member State. It is common practice that the regulation enters into force 20 days after its publication in the Official Journal of the EU. Sometimes the date of entry into force is also the date of applicability of a regulation, meaning that from the date when it enters into force, the regulation is also applicable; it can be fully invoked by its addressees and is fully enforceable.

However, due to the complexity of the domains that are regulated, a period of time may be needed between the date the regulation enters into force, i. This period of time vacatio legis is deliberately introduced for Member States, competent authorities, operators, organisations, licence holders and any other addressees or beneficiaries of the regulations to prepare their systems, processes, procedures, documentation, etc.

Vacatio legis is also a period given for the addressees of the regulation to adjust to the upcoming rights and obligations and take the necessary measures to benefit from the legal effects of the regulation, namely for the purposes of mutual recognition of certificates and approvals in the aviation internal market.

In those cases, it is common practice of the legislator to establish two different dates under the article on entry into force. One date establishes the legal existence of the act entry into force ; the second date establishes the date when it becomes applicable applicability. The date of applicability therefore represents the date from which the regulation can produce rights and obligations on the addressees and can be directly enforced towards the courts, administrations, national governments, etc.

This means that before the date of applicability, obligations or privileges can neither be exercised nor enforced. The same understanding is shared by the Legal Service of the Commission, which has also clarified in EASA Committee that the privileges provided for in a regulation can only be exercised as of the applicability date chosen by the legislator.

Persons subject to the relevant regulation including national aviation authorities may prepare themselves for such an effective date adapting their procedures and practices , but can neither enjoy the privileges nor enforce the obligations. This means that Member States cannot start delivering authorisations, approvals, certificates, etc.

However, during the gap period existing between the date of entry into force and the date of applicability, Member States and competent authorities can prepare the process towards the issuance of such authorisations, approvals, and any other certificates in accordance with the new provisions.

In addition, during the period of vacatio legis, an option that Member States and competent authorities can consider, in order to avoid issuing certificates on the last day before the date of applicability, is to issue the new certificates in accordance with the new regulation while clearly indicating in those certificates that they are only valid as of a certain date that would coincide with the date of applicability of the regulation on the basis of which those certificates are issued.

This means that those new certificates may be issued, but are not yet effective and cannot be mutually recognised among Member States until the common date of applicability established by the regulation. Until they become effective, licence holders, organisations and operators should still retain and use the certificates already issued under the previous regime.

Competent authorities are only obliged to accept the new certificates once the regulation has become applicable. The Agency has published an overview of the opt-out period applied by Member States here. Once the Implementing Rules have been adopted, it is still possible that transition measures defer their applicability to a later date. Therefore, the exact date of applicability of each requirement will depend on the transition measures adopted by the European Commission. Please refer to the information provided by the European Commission on comitology.

More information. Implementing rules IRs are binding in their entirety and used to specify a high and uniform level of safety and uniform conformity and compliance. They detail how to comply with the essential requirements of the Basic Regulation and regulate the subject matters included in its scope. EU law is directly applicable full part of Member States' legal order. The AMC illustrate a means, but not the only means, by which a requirement of an implementing rule can be met.

Satisfactory demonstration of compliance using a published AMC shall provide for presumption of compliance with the related requirement; it is a way to facilitate certification tasks for the applicant and the competent authority.

However, NAAs and organisations may decide to show compliance with the requirements using other means. Those AltMoC proposals must be accompanied by evidence of their ability to meet the intent of the IR. Special Conditions SC are non-binding special detailed technical specifications determined by the NAA for an aerodrome if the certification specifications established by EASA are not adequate or are inappropriate to ensure conformity of the aerodrome with the essential requirements of Annex VII to the Basic Regulation.

Although the information contained in the FAQs is a summary of existing law or procedures, it may contain the results of a more complex interpretation of IR or other rules of law.

In such cases there is always an internal quality consultation within the Agency prior to the publication of the FAQ on the website.

Yes, non-commercial operations with aeroplanes and helicopters are covered by Reg. The applicable rules are determined by the complexity of the aircraft being used: Annex VI Part—NCC applies to non-commercial operations with complex motor-powered aircraft and Annex VII Part—NCO applies to non-commercial operations with other-than-complex motor-powered aircraft. The definition of complex motor-powered aircraft is found in Article 3 of Reg.

The definition is as follows:. In addition, Part-SPA applies to any operation requiring a specific approval e. Annex III applies to operators of complex motor-powered aircraft, both commercial and non-commercial. This is determined by the nature of your flight, and in the case of non-commercial operations, by the type of aircraft used.

The following diagram indicates under which requirements your flight should be operating. Non-commercial operations other than SPO e. Part-SPA specific approvals appl ies to all types of operations , as the case may be. The Agency has published a cross-reference table to assist industry in transitioning to the new rules.

With this cross-reference table one can analyse in detail where and how the old provisions have been transposed into the new regulatory framework. Instead these flights are regulated under national law. As one can see from these definitions, for helicopters taxiing is defined as a critical phase of flight, while for aeroplanes it is not.

Basically, these implementing rules require crew members during critical phases of flight:. The term 'Sterile Flight Deck' is used to describe any period of time when the flight crew members shall not be disturbed e. In addition, during these periods of time the flight crew members should focus on their essential operational activities without being disturbed by non-flight related matters, i.

Sterile flight deck procedures are meant to increase the flight crew members' attention to their essential operational activities when their focused alert is needed, i.

The two definitions make it clear that 'commercial operations' include 'CAT operations'. Specialised operations SPO are another type of commercial operations. They are also defined in Article 2 of Reg. There is no further guidance on how many on-site audits should actually be performed. RAMP and on the assessment of associated risks.

The number of on-site audits is therefore part of the oversight responsibility of the authority. Before entering into a wet-lease agreement, the EU operator should demonstrate to the authority that 1 the TCO has a valid AOC, 2 that safety standards of the TCO regarding continuing airworthiness and air operations are equivalent to the EU continuing airworthiness requirements of Reg.

As stated in ORO. Nevertheless, changes affecting the operator's management system are required to be approved ORO. These audits can be performed either by the EU operator itself or a third party provider. Some implementing rules make a direct reference to the Essential Requirements. This is the case when an ER is not further developed in the implementing rules.

The Part-M requirements have not yet been amended to align with the management system framework adopted for air operations. The integration of safety management across all activities will lead to increased efficiency and effectiveness in hazard identification and risk management as compared to a system where activities are being dealt with in isolation through separate management systems. This will improve the assessment of risks identified and ensure better allocation of resources to address these risks, by eliminating conflicting or duplicating procedures and objectives.

When it comes to assessing compliance with Part-ORO competent authorities should acknowledge that implementing effective safety risk management capabilities for all activities subject to the approval will take time and therefore a balanced approach for checking compliance is needed to enable a smooth transition towards the new management system requirements.

Considering the benefits of taking a holistic, integrated approach to management system for effective safety management, competent authorities should also not mandate the implementation of separate management systems for the different approvals of the same organisation. Competent authorities should instead focus on assessing whether the management system implemented is adequate as regards the size, nature and complexity of the activities it is deemed to cover.

The issue is slightly different in the area of contracted maintenance: As the Part requirements have not yet been amended to align with the management system framework adopted for air operations, the maintenance organisation may not have established a management system to effectively identify maintenance specific hazards and manage related risks.

However, the operator would still need to consider such hazards and risks entailed by contracted maintenance, as it would do for any other contracted activity that has an impact on aviation safety, under its own management system.

While SRM is an essential element within a management system for safety, it is not the only element required. To be effective, SRM needs a structured approach and an organisational framework with clearly defined policies, safety responsibilities and accountabilities.

For example, the organisation needs to put in place policies, procedures and mechanisms for internal safety reporting and then maintain the conditions for allowing such reporting to take place. Also, in order to ensure that the organisation is continually managing its risks it needs to monitor how well it performs, both in terms of effectiveness of risk controls implemented and effective compliance with applicable requirements.

Additionally the organisation has to train their staff to fulfil their duties, including those related to any safety management task and to properly communicate on any safety relevant issue. In conclusion, SRM, while being a core element of any management system for safety, should not be singled out as the only element required to implement such system. The underlying concept is that for managing safety it is essential to take a holistic approach and to implement the new safety risk management SRM related processes while making use of and integrating these into the already existing management system e.

For example, the internal audit process compliance monitoring is kept as an essential element of the management system, while ICAO Annex 19 is not that clear about it. Hence, organisations should be encouraged to integrate the new SRM elements into their existing system and articulate these with the way the organisation is managed, addressing every facet of management, as any organisational change and any decision even in areas such as Finance, Human Resources will need to be assessed for their impact on safety.

Such integrated approach to management is much more efficient for monitoring compliance, managing risks and maximising opportunities. There is no guidance indicating that the safety manager may not be a nominated person in the organisational set up of a complex operator. However, when assessing the organisational set-up of a complex operator, please consider also GM1 ORO. In summary, the role of the safety manager is not addressed at the level of implementing rules.

The acceptable means of compliance describe the functions of the safety manager in complex operators. It is for the operator to determine if the combination of the safety manager function with that of a nominated person allows to fulfil the management functions of the nominated persons post associated with the scale and scope of the operation.

It is then for the competent authority to assess if such organisational set-up corresponds to the size of the operator and the nature and complexity of its activities, taking into account the hazards and associated risks inherent in these activities.

For the assessment of the appropriateness of the organisational set-up, the competent authority should also be satisfied that the operator complies with ORO. This is now replaced by the notion of changes requiring prior approval or changes not requiring prior approval.

During the initial certification process, nominations of personnel in general are considered to be part of the verification of compliance performed by the competent authority and therefore covered by the issuance of the AOC. Likewise, upon initial certification, the competent authority may agree with the organisation on a more specific scope of changes that do not require prior approval, on the basis of ARO.

Items not required to get a prior approval are managed by the organisation based on a procedure approved by the competent authority for the management of such changes. In any case, these changes have to be notified to the competent authority which will verify compliance with the applicable requirements cf.

Regarding the specific case of the safety manager, it should be noted that there is no requirement for a safety manager at an implementing rule level. The nomination of a safety manager is one means to comply with the IR objective. This relates not only to the required organisational capability to implement and maintain a management system in line with Part ORO, but also to the fact that the larger the organisation gets, the more complex its procedures, communication and feedback channels will be, hence the need for robust processes related to hazard identification, safety risk management, performance measurement etc.

For an organisation up to 20 FTEs, it is important to assess the 'risk profile' of the organisation in relation to the way it operates and this may justify the need for robust management processes for safety.

The AMC defines the most relevant ones. The extent of contracting, the number, complexity and diversity of aircraft operated and type of operations CAT, commercial, local, standard routes, hostile environment etc. It is important to note that the complexity criteria are included in an AMC to Part ORO and this makes a strong point as to the responsibility of the operator to make the assessment and justify the option chosen complex or non-complex management system to the satisfaction of the competent authority.

If the option is to implement the provisions applicable to complex organisations, having details of management system implementation included in the form of AMCs to ORO. In any case, this material from another source is considered to be part of the OM and therefore should meet all the general requirements applicable to the OM. It includes:. The responsibility to interpret EU Law rests with the judicial system, and ultimately with the European Court of Justice.

Therefore any information included in these FAQs shall be considered as EASA's understanding on a specific matter, and cannot be considered in any way as legally binding. The competent authority of the operator is responsible for checking for compliance and for taking enforcement measure when a non-compliance is found. A crew member is considered to be acclimatised to the time zone of the reference time for the first 48 hours.

In the following example there are 4 departure places: A, B, C and D and the crew member is in a known state of acclimatisation all the time. Day 1: The crew member starts acclimatised at A and finishes at B. The reference time is the local time at A, because the crew member is acclimatised at A and reports at A. The time difference between A and B is 2 hours. That means that after resting at B, the crew will be considered acclimatised at B.

At C the crew member has a rest period and becomes acclimatised to C. At D the crew member has a rest period and becomes acclimatised to D. Day 4: The crew member reports again considered to be acclimatised at D. The local time at D is the reference time. Crossing 6-hour time difference in one day one FDP induces time zone de-synchronisation. After the first 48 hours of the rotation have elapsed, the crew member is considered to be in an unknown state of acclimatisation. In the case of duties to different time zones, the state of acclimatisation should be determined in accordance with GM1 ORO.

Time elapsed since reporting h in the tables ORO. As long as an airport crew lounge or a shared hotel room fulfils all criteria of ORO. The criteria to be applied is the reference time e. Rest in B. Whenever consecutive local days are assigned, the last day may not contain a local night. However, from a fatigue management perspective, planning the last day to end at midnight, reduces the restorative effect of that last day to a minimum.

Rising before midnight to report at on the last day could generate sleep debt. All changes must be notified to the crew member before the pre-flight rest period commences so that the crew member is able to plan adequate rest as required by ORO.

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Visit online for the John Deere fan in your life today! Skip to main content. Rental Sales. View Used Equipment. John Deere Financial. All animal experiments described in this study were conducted in accordance with accepted standards of humane animal care, under protocols approved by the local animal research committee at San Francisco VA Medical Center. Prior to beginning experiments, cohorts of 3 animals each were kept in separate cages for at least 7 d.

For the PS group, groups of 6 animals at a time 2 cohorts were transferred to a Additional mice were kept in ordinary cages 3 per cage , without continuous light and sound, and injected in some cases with vehicle as described above. All experimental results were replicated 2—3 times in separate experiments, and the results shown in the figures are representative of the results in replicate experiments. All mice were maintained in a temperature- and humidity-controlled room and given standard laboratory food and tap water ad libitum.

There were no differences in body weights in the PS versus control groups during the course of these experiments. Clobetasol 0. Another group of littermates received vehicle alone at the same frequency. GAS infection was performed as previously described Lesions were photographed daily for 7 d, and lesion size was quantitated in digital micrographs.

Skin samples were obtained following 3 d of topical or systemic GC treatment, or 72 h PS with or without RU or antalarmin. Epidermis from all groups was obtained by EDTA separation.

All reactions were performed in triplicate. The threshold for threshold cycle Ct analysis of all samples was set at 0. For Western blotting, a method was employed for extraction of low—molecular weight, hydrophobic, cationic peptides, as described previously Controls without primary antibodies showed no immunolabeling, and skin sections of CRAMP knockout mice served as controls.

Skin biopsies from PS and nonstressed mice were minced to less than 0. After postfixation, all samples were dehydrated in graded ethanol solutions and embedded in an Epon-epoxy mixture. Ultrathin sections were examined, with or without further lead citrate contrasting, using a Zeiss 10A electron microscope operated at 60 kV. Skin biopsies for immunoelectron microscopy were cut into 0. Ultrathin sections were collected on Formvar-coated nickel grids. All immunolabeling steps were carried out at room temperature.

After 3 washes for 5 min each with incubation buffer, sections were incubated with goat anti-rabbit IgG, conjugated to 10 nm colloidal gold Ted Pella Inc. A P value less than 0. We gratefully acknowledge the excellent editorial assistance of Joan Wakefield and Jerelyn Magnusson. Conflict of interest: The authors have declared that no conflict of interest exists.

Citation for this article: J. Portions of this work were presented at the annual meeting of the Society for Investigative Dermatology in Philadelphia, Pennsylvania, USA, May 3—6, , and published in abstract form. See the related Commentary beginning on page J Clin Invest. Published online Nov 1.

Karin M. Aberg , 1 Katherine A. Feingold , 1 and Peter M. Elias 1. Find articles by Karin M. Katherine A.

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Address correspondence to: Peter M. Phone: ; Fax: ; E-mail: ude. Received Feb 6; Accepted Jul See commentary " A nervous breakdown in the skin: stress and the epidermal barrier " in volume on page Associated Data Supplementary Materials Supplemental data. Abstract The skin is the first line of defense against microbial infection, and psychological stress PS has been shown to have adverse effects on cutaneous barrier function.

Introduction Multiple converging lines of evidence suggest that psychological stress PS , if sustained, can adversely impact critical functions such as immune surveillance 1 , gastrointestinal integrity 2 — 4 , coronary artery disease 5 , 6 , and wound healing 7 — Open in a separate window.

Figure 1. PS downregulates epidermal AMP expression. Figure 2. Figure 3. Superpotent topical steroid also downregulates epidermal AMPs. Figure 4. Figure 5. Figure 6. Figure 7. PS-induced decline in epidermal AMPs correlates with increased susceptibility to cutaneous infections and is mediated by GCs. Figure 8. PS increases the severity of cutaneous GAS infection. Discussion PS adversely effects the function of epithelial tissues, including the epidermis, where it perturbs both epidermal permeability barrier homeostasis 28 — 31 and cutaneous wound healing 1 , 3 , 7 — Figure 9.

Western immunoblotting For Western blotting, a method was employed for extraction of low—molecular weight, hydrophobic, cationic peptides, as described previously